• federalreverse-old@feddit.de
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      16
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      9 months ago

      Normalized by passenger, certainly. However, it’s easier to hit passenger capacity in a train than in a (private) car.

      • huginn@feddit.it
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        3
        ·
        9 months ago

        Wait the private car isn’t normalized as 1 person per car or 1.2 average people per car?

        Deeply suspicious framing if that’s the case.

        • federalreverse-old@feddit.de
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          2
          ·
          9 months ago

          You misunderstood me. For one, I simply assumed that locomotives have big engines for a reason and thus the number can’t be calculated for the entire train. For two, when I mentioned the capacity of cars, I meant maximum passenger capacity. I said that because at maximum passenger capacity, cars become a reasonable means of transportation whereas normally, they are ridiculously inefficient.

    • JohnDClay@sh.itjust.works
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      6
      ·
      9 months ago

      The 50 is normalized to passenger. I think it’s 30 per seat, but I guess they don’t fill all the seats usually.