• @commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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    111 months ago

    The moral thing to do is to pay your share of that if you make a copy, even if the copy itself doesn’t cost anything.

    i don’t need to disagree to disbelieve. i do disagree, but without establishing your justification for this claim, it’s kind of hard to argue against it.

    • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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      211 months ago

      The justification was that creating things has a cost, even if a copy doesn’t, and that we should distribute that cost as fairly as possible among the people benefiting from the creation.

        • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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          11 months ago

          Idk what to tell you but: Yes it does. We can’t really argue if you refuse to elaborate your point.

          • @commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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            111 months ago

            when you drive over a bridge, do you tip the engineering form? the contractors? they’re the ones who created this experience for you.

            • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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              11 months ago

              I pay taxes, those were used to pay the people who build the bridge. And yes, taxes should be fair. If it’s a private bridge then the owners have every right to demand a fee for crossing it.

              • @commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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                111 months ago

                not the owners: the designers. what if I copy the bridge and put it in my front yard: do you think I owe royalties to the engineering firm?

                • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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                  111 months ago

                  Yes, of course. They created the design, it cost them time and money, you want to use it, so you should pay part of those costs. Or to put it differently: You both use the design, why should they be the ones to pay for its creation, and not you?

            • @MJBrune@beehaw.org
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              111 months ago

              Yes, you do, in the form of buying gas or paying taxes. You don’t even have to use the bridge to have to pay for it.

                • @MJBrune@beehaw.org
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                  111 months ago

                  It depends on the system. In taxes, yes. Use isn’t tied to paying. In consumer goods and services, they are not paid by taxes. So they do have a direct use/buy causation.