• @shrugal@lemm.ee
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    211 months ago

    The justification was that creating things has a cost, even if a copy doesn’t, and that we should distribute that cost as fairly as possible among the people benefiting from the creation.

      • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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        11 months ago

        Idk what to tell you but: Yes it does. We can’t really argue if you refuse to elaborate your point.

        • @commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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          111 months ago

          when you drive over a bridge, do you tip the engineering form? the contractors? they’re the ones who created this experience for you.

          • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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            11 months ago

            I pay taxes, those were used to pay the people who build the bridge. And yes, taxes should be fair. If it’s a private bridge then the owners have every right to demand a fee for crossing it.

            • @commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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              111 months ago

              not the owners: the designers. what if I copy the bridge and put it in my front yard: do you think I owe royalties to the engineering firm?

              • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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                111 months ago

                Yes, of course. They created the design, it cost them time and money, you want to use it, so you should pay part of those costs. Or to put it differently: You both use the design, why should they be the ones to pay for its creation, and not you?

                  • @shrugal@lemm.ee
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                    11 months ago

                    Who says you can only owe something if you take something away first?

                    Think about how rent works. The building or appartement will still be there, loose value over time and need repairs whether you live there or not, yet you still owe the owner rent if you do.

          • @MJBrune@beehaw.org
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            111 months ago

            Yes, you do, in the form of buying gas or paying taxes. You don’t even have to use the bridge to have to pay for it.

              • @MJBrune@beehaw.org
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                111 months ago

                It depends on the system. In taxes, yes. Use isn’t tied to paying. In consumer goods and services, they are not paid by taxes. So they do have a direct use/buy causation.